Live Quiz Arena
🎁 1 Free Round Daily
⚡ Enter ArenaQuestion
← Human Body & HealthAn elderly patient presents with accumulating amyloid plaques in the brain. Which mechanism explains why age-related decline reduces amyloid clearance via the glymphatic system?
A)Reduced aquaporin-4 channel expression
B)Increased blood-brain barrier permeability
C)Impaired astrocyte end-feet polarization✓
D)Enhanced microglial phagocytosis markers
💡 Explanation
Impaired astrocyte end-feet polarization disrupts perivascular space organization, hindering cerebrospinal fluid influx. The glymphatic system clears amyloid via convective flow. Because polarization is reduced, clearance is impaired, therefore amyloid accumulates, rather than being efficiently removed by a functional glymphatic system.
🏆 Up to £1,000 monthly prize pool
Ready for the live challenge? Join the next global round now.
*Terms apply. Skill-based competition.
Related Questions
Browse Human Body & Health →- Why does hyponatremia cause brain swelling through cellular osmosis?
- An oncologic surgeon removes axillary lymph nodes during a breast cancer resection. Which outcome is likely to occur in the affected arm because of this lymphatic disruption?
- Which outcome occurs when antithrombin III's activity is significantly reduced in blood plasma?
- Why does severe lymphedema increase susceptibility to skin infections?
- An elderly patient experiences chronic psychological stress, compounded by limited mobility. Which outcome concerning bone remodeling becomes most likely in this scenario?
- Why does significant muscle sarcopenia increase the risk of hip fractures, even when bone density, measured via DXA, remains relatively stable in an elderly patient?
